I am wrong. Thanks for the right answer. The equation is P1^(1-gamma)T1^gamma)=P2^(1-gamma)T2^gamma. gamma=5/3 for this case.ScienceTurtle314 wrote:This was a good problem, and this is a good solution attempt. There's a problem though with how you find that the internal energy of the system when the work done by the piston (energy lost) F∆d is equal to the energy gained by the gas 3/2nR∆T. This implies that all of the energy from the pressure of the piston goes into the internal energy of the gas. However, in reality when the force of the piston on the gas is in equilibrium with the force of the gas on the piston, the piston will be in motion and so it will have kinetic energy, so F∆d is actually less than 3/2nR∆T because energy goes into the kinetic energy of the piston. To get this, think about about what happens when the piston first falls into gas and compresses it. When the force of the piston on the gas (F) reaches the force of the gas on the piston (Pressure*A), the piston will stop accelerating downwards (technically the forces on the piston and gas are equal by Newton's 3rd law, but I mean the force from the pressure of the piston and the force from the pressure of the gas). However, it will still have velocity from its acceleration up to that point, and therefore continue to move downwards, so that the gas's force upwards pressure is greater than the downwards pressure from the piston. The resulting upwards acceleration will cause the piston to come to a rest, and then begin to accelerate back upwards towards the force equilibrium. Over time, the piston should actually oscillate back and forth around the force equilibrium, such that it always is in motion at that point. We cannot say that F∆d is equal to 3/2nR∆T. When solving this problem properly, you would instead find work when forces are at equilibrium using dU = PdV = 3/2nRdT, and throwing in an additional equation for adiabatic compression (dU = [R/(1-gamma)]dT). These can be used to calculate dU, and circumvent the need to calculate how far the piston falls. Because all the math is complex (and beyond my current knowledge) and simplifies well, the formula you can use to solve this problem is that P1^(1−γ1)*T1^γ=P2^(1−γ2)*T2^γ2... if you google free expansion you can find out more about it. Using this, you get a change of 98K, which is the solution to the problem given by the key in the original question.jinhusong wrote:I feel this is a test question, so they will not expect you take that long time to do the number calculation. If you keep the symbols, and do not replace them with numbers, you will get:TheChiScientist wrote:So..... Problem resolved?
from U1=U0+(mg+F)(V0-V1)/A and U0=3/2nRT0, U1=3/2nRT1 you got: T1-T0=(mg+F) * 2/3 * (V0-V1)/(nRA), where A is the piston area.
from P0V0=nRT0 and P1V1=nRT1, you got V0-V1=nR(T0/P0 - T1/P1)
replace the V0-V1 in the first equation and remember P0A=mg, and P1A=mg+F, you get
(T1-T0)=2/5 * F/(mg) * T0. Only decided by initial temperature, weight of piston and force applied.
So the answer to the question (T1-T0)=2/5 * 50 / (4.5*9.8) * 278 = 126F
(T1 = 278 + 126 = 404F)
I got into a wrong path.
Here are something still bother me.
My feeling is you apply the force gradually, extremely slow, from 0 to 50N and the piston no move once it reach 50N.
If you really apply a constant 50N force, it will end up like you said, piston oscillation and temperature up and down, non-stop.